where the two terms on the right hand side are the Hicksian substitution effect and the product of marginal Marshallian demand change with respect to welfare (can be represented by income) and the current demand quantity based on utility level U0, which is the income effect. If let i = j, the whole equation can be used to describe the behavior of good i's demand with the control from parameters p, w, and u.
Now lets take a close look at the income effect. If writing Slutsky equation by the language of elasticity, the income effect will be the product of good i's elasticity of income and its spending share, which is the ratio of spending on good i and the total income. Lots of literatures (Hicks; Marshall) have recognized the role of the spending share and concluded that a small proportion of spending share will help us to ignore the income effect. The small spending share is consistent with Marshall's basic assumption on Marshallian's demand when he used it to calculate the welfare by consumer surplus: the marginal utility of income is consistent. Why? First of all, think of the intuition of income effect from equation (1). Besides the negative sign, it shows a direct linear augment (or reduce) of i's current quantity demand, the second part of the income effect, while the degree of magnification (or shrink) is the marginal sensitivity of the quantify demand to the welfare income. This means, income tries to constrain the scale of consumption. When the marginal demand of good i is sensitive to income, the fluctuation of income will have a deeper control of the scale of consumption. Here I use density as a pictorial description of the partial derivative of the quantity demand with respect to income, which reflects how much the consumption relies on the absolute level of income. Now back to our question on marginal utility of income. When income increase by 1, the scale of the whole bundle of consumption, assuming including n goods, tends to be augmented, which means every goods needs to be consumed more. As we all know, at equilibrium, the marginal utility of every goods are equal and they are also all equal to the marginal utility of income. When the spending share of good i or its demand's sensitivity to income is small, good i's consumption scale won't change much, which leads to a little change of its marginal utility given the usual diminishing marginal utility assumption. But if we want to hold the result - marginal utility of every goods are equal - to be true, we cannot rely on a "small demand sensitivity to income" any more since the income must change someone's consumption big within the bundle or this 1 unit gain will be wasted, which will ensure at least one good's elasticity of income to be large. However, spending share does not have such problem. As long as n is large enough, spending share of every good could be very small. Then, a change of income won't affect the quantity demand of any of them much, and thus hold marginal utility of every good, as well as the marginal utility of income, to be approximately constant. Vice versa, constant marginal utility of income must be guaranteed by small spending share.
All of these analysis actually gives us the fundamental explanation of one question: where does the income effect definitely come from? The answer is the change of marginal utility of income and the equilibrium requirement. This seems to be the end of the interpretation of income effect. But I have at least two questions left that I hope to least here. First one is that preference order information is not included in this interpretation. Second, this theory is within a n goods bundle; what if as income increase, the bundle's scale increase? Will there be a discontinuity problem? Suppose those goods on the waiting list be capital goods which may violate the small spending share assumption, which is intuitive, how would we update our fundamental interpretation of income effect?
Reference:
Wikipedia, income effect
Some classic economics literatures on demand theory